Explanation
Each of the choices describes various scenarios related to the issue of bonds. A when-issued market is a market in government securities where securities are traded as forward contracts prior to their issue. Choice 'c' is the correct answer.
Choice 'd' refers to a 'bought deal'. Choice 'b' refers to the 'grey market', usually in corporate bonds. Choice 'a' refers to a fixed price re-offer mechanism.

Explanation
According to the mean variance criterion, an investor would always:
- prefer less risk to more risk given a certain level of returns,
- prefer more returns to less returns given a certain level of risk,
- if two portfolios are such that one provides higher returns at a higher risk, and the other provides a lower return at a lower risk, then we cannot say which of the portfolios the investor would prefer as that would depend upon the investor's risk preference.
The implication of the above is that an investor will always prefer a portfolio on the efficient frontier (the first two points above), as the portfolios on the efficient frontier always represent the maximum return for any given level of risk (or lowest risk given a certain level of desired return). As between two portfolios both of which are on the efficient frontier (last point above), the investor will pick based upon his or her level of risk tolerance.
Therefore statement II and III are correct, and Choice 'd' is the correct answer. The reference to drawdowns and risk neutrality in statements I and IV are meaningless in the context and are incorrect.

Explanation
A 'hard call protection' means the bond cannot be called until a certain date, regardless of what the share price is. Therefore statement I is false. Also note that a 'soft call protection' means that a bond can be called only if the share price reaches a certain threshold.
It is advantageous for the issuer to call its convertible securities when the share price exceeds the conversion price - because these shares can instead be sold in the market at the higher share price than the lower conversion price. Statement II is true.
When the issuer's share price is very high, the convertible bond trades at a discount to the share price because it is almost certain to be called by the issuer and be redeemed at par. Therefore statement III is right. Statement IV is incorrect because convertible bonds need to pay less coupon than equivalent non-convertible bonds because of the value of the option embedded in them.

Explanation
A utility function provides a description of an individual or a firm's risk attitude. It expresses how risk seeking or risk averse they are. The utility function would provide for changes between risk seeking and risk averse behavior, for example, as an individual becomes richer, he may seek (or shun) risk more than before. A utility function incorporates all of this, and a logarithmic utility function is represented by u(x) = ln(x).

Explanation
Some parts of this question draw upon contingent claims framework to the value of a firm. According to this framework, the relationship between the debt and equity holders of a firm can be viewed as follows: The equity holders have a call option on the assets of the firm with a strike price equal to the value of the debt, and the debt holders have sold them this call. This is so because should the value of the assets of the firm fall below the value of the debt, the equity holders can walk away by handing over the assets to the debt holders in full extinguishment of their claims. If the value of the firm's assets is greater than the value of debt, the equity holders will exercise their call option. At the same time, it is also possible to view the debtholders as holding an asset and having sold a put on the assets of the firm with a strike price equal to the value of the debt. If the value of the assets of the firm were to fall below the value of the debt, they will end up buying the assets at a price equal to the value of the debt.
An increase in the volatility of returns on the assets of a firm increases the volatility of the asset value. This means the likelihood that the asset value will go below the value of the debt of the firm will increase. Callable debt can be considered to be a summation of two separate securities: a regular debt, for which the firm pays interest and receives a principal loan; and a call option that the debt holders have sold to the firm allowing the firm to buy back the debt. In return, the firm pays an implied 'premium' to the debt holders who have agreed to buy the callable debt. Therefore the total payments by the company to callable debt holders is equal to the interest payments plus the premium payment for the option. An increase in asset volatility will increase the value of this option as it is likely that the assets will increase in value, and strengthen the company's credit, and lower its spread at which time it would like to repay the debt and refinance/roll over at the new lower rate.
Therefore an increase in volatility will increase the 'premium' demanded by the callable debt holders, thereby increasing the total yield and lowering the value of the callable debt. Therefore Choice 'b' (An increase in the value of the callable debt of the firm) is incorrect.
An increase in asset volatility will decrease the value of the firm as it is now riskier than before (higher standard deviation, same expected returns). Therefore Choice 'a' (An increase in the value of the equity of the firm) is false too.
The value of the implicit put in the debt of the firm will increase and not decrease as the volatility of the underlying assets increases. Therefore Choice 'c' (A decrease in the value of the implicit put in in the debt of the firm) is incorrect too.
Choice 'd' (A decrease in the value of the non-callable debt issued by the firm) is correct because higher asset volatility will increase the riskiness of the company's debt, making the required yield higher and decreasing its value.