Explanation
The Options Theoretic approach to calculating economic capital is a top-down approach that considers the value of capital as being equivalent to a call option with a strike price equal to the notional value of the debt - ie, the shareholders have a call option on the assets of the firm which they can acquire by paying the debt holders a value equal to their notional claim (ie the face value of the debt). Therefore Choice 'a' is the correct answer and the other choices are incorrect.

Explanation
The square root of time rule cannot be applied here because the returns across the periods are not independent.
(Recall that the square root of time rule requires returns to be iid, independent and identically distributed.) Here there is a 'autocorrelation' in play, which means one period's returns affect the returns of the other period.
VaR is merely a multiple of volatility, or standard deviation, using the factor for the desired confidence level.
VaR across time periods can be combined using the square root of time rule, in fact if returns were independent we could have easily calculated the VaR for the 20-day period as equal to $100m*SQRT(20/10) =
$141.4m
But in this case we need to account for the autocorrelation. We can do this akin to the way we combine the VaR of different assets that have a given correlation. Since we know that:
Variance (A + B) = Variance(A) + Variance(B) + 2*Correlation*StdDev(A)*StdDev(B).
The standard deviation, which the VaR is a multiple of, can be calculated by taking the square root of the variance.
Therefore the combined VaR over the two months will be equal to =SQRT( (100^2) + (100^2) +
2*0.2*100*100 )= $154.92m. All other answers are incorrect.

Explanation
The ISDA MA provides a template that can be used by market participants to document derivative transactions. It has a core section that applies always, and various schedules that can be agreed to by the parties. The ISDA MA considerably facilitates closing transactions once the ISDA MA has been has been negotiated, without requiring a renegotiation each time.
A key feature of the ISDA MA is that it binds all transactions into a single net obligation. The ISDA Master
2002 states that "All transactions are entered into in reliance on the fact that this Master Agreement and all Confirmations form a single agreement between the parties ... and the parties would not otherwise enter into any Transactions." Therefore transactions under the ISDA MA are not considered separate obligations.
The ISDA MA does indeed define close out processes, default and termination events, and the CSA is one of the parts of the MA that describes the collateral related agreement.

Explanation
A bullet bond is a bond that pays coupons covering interest during the life of the bond and the principal at maturity. An amortizing loan pays the interest as well as a part of the principal with every payment. Therefore, the exposure of the amortizing loan continually reduces, and approaches zero towards the end of its life. The bullet bond will always have a higher exposure at any time during its life when compared to an equivalent amortizing loan. Hence Choice 'd' is the correct answer.

Explanation
A situation where a firm has more liabilities than assets does not necessarily imply default, so long as the firm is able to pay its obligations when they come due. Therefore, short term debts have a greater bearing on a firm's default than longer term debt. However, this is not to say that merely having enough to pay off the short term debts (ie debts due within one year) is enough to avoid default. Over time, the long term debt will also be turning to short term debt, and it may not be possible for the firm to roll over its liabilities without lenders considering the long term debt. The KMV approach considers the entire short term debt and half of the long term debt as the critical value of assets below which default will be triggered. Therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer.