A record review conducted prior to a primary care appointment indicates a patient has been followed for history of colon cancer. The patient is 18 months s/p bowel resection and is under treatment for LLE DVT, which required monitoring of INR - on Coumadin. The problem list also includes obesity, obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), COPD, and hypertension. Which of the following is the query opportunity?
Correct Answer: D
In outpatient CDI, a prime query opportunity is any diagnosis with unclear "status" that materially affects coding, risk adjustment, surveillance, and care planning. "History of colon cancer" paired with "18 months s/p bowel resection" creates ambiguity: the provider must clarify whether the malignancy is still active (current disease, recurrence, metastasis, ongoing treatment) versus no longer present (history of malignancy, in remission, disease-free status, post-treatment surveillance only). This distinction changes code selection substantially and prevents inappropriate reporting of an active cancer when the encounter is actually follow-up after curative treatment. By contrast, ostomy status is not documented as present, and OSA/COPD "status" may be clinically useful but is not inherently ambiguous from the prompt in the same way (they are listed as chronic problems without a conflicting timeline event). ACDIS outpatient CDI practice prioritizes clarifying cancer status because it impacts longitudinal documentation integrity, accurate problem list management, and compliant diagnosis reporting at each visit.
Question 32
A 62-year-old female with history of HTN, CAD, chronic cough and obesity is seen by her PCP. Which of the following treatment plans may result in a query?
Correct Answer: C
In outpatient CDI practice, a common reason to query is a mismatch between what is being evaluated/treated and what is explicitly documented as an active condition for the encounter. A diagnostic chest x-ray aligns with the already-documented symptom (chronic cough), and a nutrition specialist referral aligns with an established diagnosis (obesity); neither inherently suggests an undocumented condition. Prescribing captopril aligns with documented HTN management, so it generally would not create documentation ambiguity requiring clarification (even though ACE inhibitors can be associated with cough, the plan alone does not establish a new reportable diagnosis). In contrast, ordering an HbA1c often signals assessment for diabetes, impaired glucose regulation, or monitoring of known diabetes. Because diabetes is not listed in the history provided, the HbA1c order may prompt the CDI specialist to query whether the provider is evaluating a suspected or existing glycemic disorder, whether there is a diagnosis such as prediabetes/diabetes being addressed, and to ensure the record clearly supports the medical necessity and any reportable condition.
Question 33
An 81-year-old is seen by his family physician for continued confusion and poor memory. PMH includes HTN, GERD, and Parkinson's. The provider reviews the neurologist's consultation notes, evaluates the patient's current mental state, and addresses the diagnoses of HTN, GERD, and Parkinson's. The provider's problem list included: Dementia, GERD, HTN, and Parkinson's. Which of the following is the first-listed diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
In the outpatient setting, the first-listed diagnosis is the condition chiefly responsible for the services provided during the encounter. Here, the stated reason for the visit is continued confusion and poor memory, and the provider specifically evaluates the patient's current mental state and references neurology consultation notes-actions that directly support assessment of a cognitive disorder. While HTN, GERD, and Parkinson's are also addressed and may be reportable if they meet encounter relevance (e.g., monitored, evaluated, assessed/managed, or treated), they are not the primary driver for today's visit based on the presenting complaint. Outpatient documentation and coding guidance emphasizes sequencing the diagnosis that best explains the visit's main purpose first, with additional coexisting conditions listed afterward when they impact care. Since "dementia" is on the active problem list and aligns with the patient's cognitive symptoms and the physician's mental-status evaluation, it is the most appropriate first-listed diagnosis among the options.
Question 34
Which of the following contributes to the risk adjustment score under the CMS-HCC model?
Correct Answer: C
Under the CMS-HCC risk adjustment methodology, the RAF is calculated primarily from two categories of inputs: (1) demographic/enrollment eligibility factors and (2) diagnosis codes that map to HCCs based on documented, reportable conditions. Eligibility status matters because Medicare models differentiate beneficiaries by factors such as aged versus disabled status and other enrollment characteristics that affect expected cost. The second major driver is the set of valid, supported ICD-10-CM codes reported for the beneficiary during the data collection period; only certain chronic, clinically significant conditions map to HCCs, and they must be documented as active and applicable to the encounter and coded correctly. In ambulatory CDI, this is why accurate condition capture, specificity, and linkage (e.g., cause/manifestation relationships) are emphasized-because reported conditions directly affect the patient's risk profile and the expected cost benchmark. By contrast, income status is not a standard CMS-HCC input, "previous risk score" is not itself an input variable, and utilization outcomes like cost of care or readmissions are not used to compute RAF (they may be evaluated separately in quality/cost programs).
Question 35
Which of the following payment models enables Medicare to forecast costs for Medicare Advantage members for the coming year?
Correct Answer: D
Medicare Advantage (MA) payments are risk adjusted so CMS can predict expected healthcare costs for each enrollee in the upcoming payment year. The model used for this forecasting is the CMS-HCC (Hierarchical Condition Category) risk adjustment methodology. It converts demographic factors (such as age/sex and eligibility status) plus documented, coded diagnoses (ICD-10-CM codes that map to HCCs) into a Risk Adjustment Factor (RAF). CMS then uses the RAF to adjust capitation payments to MA plans to reflect the member's anticipated resource needs. This is why outpatient CDI places heavy emphasis on accurate, specific capture and annual "recapture" of active chronic conditions that are monitored, evaluated, assessed/addressed, or treated during the encounter-because the prior year's valid HCCs drive the next year's predicted cost and payment. By contrast, APCs relate to OPPS facility outpatient payment, RVUs/RBRVS relate to physician fee schedule valuation, and GPCIs adjust payment geographically; none of those are the MA risk forecasting model.