Section: Mix Questions
Explanation:
You must manage them closely. High-power/high-interest stakeholders who do not support your project could have a devastating effect on your project.

Section: Mix Questions
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A positive schedule variance indicates that the project is ahead of schedule. A positive cost variance indicates that the project has incurred less cost than estimated for the work accomplished; therefore, the project is under budget.

According to the PMBOKGuide, the project manager is responsible for managing the project changes and ensuring that they are aligned with the project objectives and stakeholder expectations. Therefore, the project manager should evaluate the impact of the decision to switch from a cloud-based system to a dial-up service on the project scope, schedule, cost, quality, risk, and communication. The project manager should then communicate the impact analysis and the potential alternatives to the management and seek their approval or guidance. Agreeing with management and continuing working the project management plan may not be the best option, as it may result in poor project performance, stakeholder dissatisfaction, or ethical issues. The project manager should not blindly accept the decision without analyzing its consequences and exploring other options. Meeting with management about their decision and asking them to get another project manager may be unprofessional and irresponsible. The project manager should not abandon the project or escalate the issue without trying to resolve it first. Replacing some of the team members that work virtually to help the company save money may not be feasible or desirable. The project manager should consider the impact of losing valuable team members, the cost and time of hiring and training new ones, and the effect on the team morale and productivity. References: PMBOKGuide, Sixth Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.6 (Perform Integrated Change Control) and Chapter 13, Section 13.3.2.4 (Project Manager)

With the following
Explanation:
EAC = [AC + (BAC - EV) / .9] = 861.11 or 861 rounded down.[#1] In order to get this answer, you have to ADD the remaining budget (BAC - EV) to AC and THEN divide the sum by CPI. But that's contrary to what the parentheses indicate in PMBOK, that is: EAC = AC + ((BAC - EV)/CPI). Now, if you were to obey the order of operation implied in PMBOK, you'd come up with 777.77 or 778 rounded up, which is answer A. So which one is it - 778 or 861?[#2] Actually, even though the formulas have a different meaning based on the context, mathematically they are the same: EAC = BAC / CPI with no variance EAC = AC + ( BAC - EV ) / CPI with variance, based on performance But, CPI = EV / AC, so EAC = AC + ( BAC - EV ) / CPI = AC + BAC / CPI - EV / CPI = AC + BAC / CPI - EV / ( EV / AC ) = AC + BAC / CPI - EV * ( AC / EV ) = AC + BAC / CPI - AC = BAC / CPI
Why does this work? When there is no variance, the CPI should be 1, and the EAC should be the BAC.[#3] Forget about all that and just use BAC / CPI (see derivation below):700 /
0.9 = 778.You are right, the book is wrong.