Explanation
This question emphasizes the difference between primary and secondary risks. Primary risks are the risks consciously undertaken, ie the risks whose premium the investor is trying to earn. Secondary risks are risks that accompany the primary risks that the investor will either hedge, or will ignore if they are small. It is important to watch out for secondary risks because they could become significant and offset the returns being sought even if the investor's market view is proved correct.
An investor in market index futures is betting that the index will rise. Index futures prices are largely driven by the spot value of the index, but are also affected by costs of carry. In particular, futures prices will be driven by interest rates, expected dividends, and any other factors that may cause the basis between spot and futures prices to diverge. These risks are secondary risks.
In this question, Choice 'd' represents the primary risk, and Choice 'a', Choice 'b' and Choice 'c' are all secondary risks. Therefore Choice 'd' is the correct answer.

Explanation
Pre-settlement risk is the risk that one of the counterparties defaults prior to the date for the maturity of the transaction in question. This may be an unrelated default, in fact there may have been no default on that particular contract, but the party may have defaulted on its other obligations, or filed for bankruptcy. To deal with such cases and to protect the interests of both the parties, it is common to provide for immediate termination of positions and settlement based on the current replacement value of the contracts. Therefore statements I and II are correct.
Statement III is correct as well - the exposure from an OTC derivative contract derives from its current replacement value, and not the notional. If the current replacement value is negative, then the credit exposure is considered equal to zero.
Statement IV is correct as it is quite common to restate all exposures - those from credit lines, OTC derivatives etc - in loan equivalent terms prior to estimating credit risk.

Explanation
Unexpected loss for a credit portfolio refers to the excess of the VaR estimate over the average expected loss.
The term 'unexpected loss' has this specific meaning in the context of credit risk, and not any other intuitive meaning. So if for a portfolio worth $100m expected losses are 4%, and the credit VaR at 99% is $12m, then unexpected losses at that VaR quintile are $8m. This is unrelated to actual realized losses versus expected losses.
Therefore Choice 'd' is the correct answer and the others are not.
Unexpected loss is used to determine the capital reserves to be maintained against a credit portfolio at a certain level of confidence.

Explanation
Risks such as abrupt changes to a firm's business model caused by legislation, or the introduction of capital controls in foreign countries where a firm in invested, geo-political risks etc are not modelable in the traditional sense. These risks cannot be modeled using VaR. Therefore statement I is correct.
VaR indeed does not consider liquidity risk, it is only concerned with the standard deviation of portfolio returns. Statement II is a valid criticism.
Statement III is not correct, as VaR can consider historical price movements.
Statement IV is correct, as VaR does not consider systemic risk or the risk of contagion.

Explanation
The CCAR is a supervisory mechanism adopted by the US Federal Reserve Bank to assess capital adequacy for bank holding companies it supervises. It was not a concept introduced by the international Basel framework.
The other three were indeed rules introduced by Basel 2.5, which was ultimately subsumed into Basel III.
Stressed VaR is just the standard 99%/10 day VaR, calculated with the assumption that relevant market factors are under stress.
The Incremental Risk Charge (IRC) is an estimate of default and migration risk of unsecuritized credit products in the trading book. (Though this may sound like a credit risk term, it relates to market risk - for example, a bond rated A being downgraded to BBB. In the old days, the banking book where loans to customers are held was the primary source of credit risk, but with OTC trading and complex products the trading book also now holds a good deal of credit risk. Both IRC and CRM account for these.) While IRC considers only non-securitized products, the CRM (Comprehensive Risk Model) considers securitized products such as tranches, CDOs, and correlation based instruments.
The IRC, SVaR and CRM complement standard VaR by covering risks that are not included in a standard VaR model. Their results are therefore added to the VaR for capital adequacy determination.