Explanation
All of the properties described are the properties of a 'coherent' risk measure.
Monotonicity means that if a portfolio's future value is expected to be greater than that of another portfolio, its risk should be lower than thatof the other portfolio. For example, if the expected return of an asset (or portfolio) is greater than that of another, the first asset must have a lower risk than the other. Another example:
between two options if the first has a strike price lower thanthe second, then the first option will always have a lower risk if all other parameters are the same. VaR satisfies this property.
Homogeneity is easiest explained by an example: if you double the size of a portfolio, the risk doubles. The linear scaling property of a risk measure is called homogeneity. VaR satisfies this property.
Translation invariance means adding riskless assets to a portfolio reduces total risk. So if cash (which has zero standard deviation and zero correlation with other assets) is added to a portfolio, the risk goes down. A risk measure should satisfy this property, and VaR does.
Sub-additivity means that the total risk for a portfolio should be less than the sum of its parts. This is a property that VaR satisfies most of thetime, but not always. As an example, VaR may not be sub-additive for portfolios that have assets with discontinuous payoffs close to the VaR cutoff quantile.

Explanation
The credit worthiness of the retail customer is certainly a factor for thebank to consider as it will need to price the loan to cover the expectation of default. At the same time, it will need to look at other loans in its portfolio as to avoid unacceptable concentration risk. A corollary of the same theme is that the bank willneed to take a portfolio view of the loan request and consider its contribution to total portfolio risk. Therefore all the choices are appropriate considerations for the bank and Choice 'd' is the correct answer.

Explanation
All of the distributions referred to in the question can be used to model the loss severity distribution for op risk.Therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer.

Explanation
According to ISDA standard definitions, the legal claim for OTCderivatives is the current replacement value of the contract. Therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer. None of the other choices are correct.

Explanation
KMV Moody's uses a proprietary database to convert the distance to default to expected default probabilities.